Showing posts with label Study Guide. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Study Guide. Show all posts

Describe DashLocker’s growth potential.

Question 4
Describe DashLocker’s growth potential.
DashLocker, a dry cleaning and wash-and-fold service, has a great growth potential. First, it is a social mission; more people are likely to have the service as lockers are scalable and can be installed just about anywhere with client’s convenience of 24 hours service. Second, Earth-friendly technology, GreenEarth dry cleaning machines, uses liquid silicone rather than perchloroethylene also catches the attention of the clients. Liquid silicone is a natural element and not dangerous for people but perchloroethylene is not only dangerous to dry-cleaning workers but also consumers. Third, Using kiosk system that enables clients to lock and unlock laundry bins with a credit card anytime so they can drop off the laundry before going to work and pick up when they go back to home is also very convenient. Moreover, it uses green and eco-friendly technology with a motto to reduce the carbon footprint globally. Attributes such as ease in installation and quick service makes the growth of business more steady and viable.

Chapter # 6 - The Business Plan: Visualizing the Dream (Study Guide)

Small Business Management: An Entrepreneurial Emphasis, 13th Edition 

6.   Chapter "The Business Plan: Visualizing the Dream" Study Guide

1. A business plan:
a. identifies key factors of success or failure.
b. identifies the nature and context of a business opportunity.
c. describes the approach an entrepreneur will take to capture a business opportunity.
d. addresses all of these objectives. feedback: The business plan does serve all of these purposes.

2. The entrepreneur has two basic choices in type of business plan to write:
a. the narrative plan and the linear plan.
b. the summary plan and the comprehensive plan. feedback: These are two of the basic types of business plan.
c. the internal plan and the external plan.
d. the marketing plan and the operating plan.

3. To maximize the chances of success, an effective business plan must convince which of the following outside interests of the viability of the new venture?
a. suppliers
b. investors
c. potential customers
d. All of these answers are correct.feedback: The new venture must tell a convincing story to all outsiders: suppliers, investors, and potential customers.

4. This document contains all the information needed to satisfy security laws related to warning potential investors about the possible risks of an investment.
a. business plan
b. financial plan
c. prospectus
d. investment document

5. Prospective investors in a business generally serve as ________ when it comes to an entrepreneur's business presentation.
a. advocates
b. skeptics. feedback:  Investors are interested in maximizing return on investment while minimizing risk.
c. cheerleaders
d. social commentators

6. Most investors are more ________ than product-oriented.
a. market-oriented. feedback: Incorrect. Investors are concerned with market prospects because without identifiable potential customers return on investment is unlikely.
b. people-oriented
c. finance-oriented
d. quality-oriented

7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a successful business plan?
a. Financial justification of means chosen to sell the products or services.
b. The right length and right appearance.
c. Hard evidence of the marketability of a product or service.
d. Detailed computer-generated financial projections. feedback: Investors generally read brief reports, and the plan's overall appearance enhances the chances of investor consideration.

8. Initial decisions about which of the following factors will help determine the rest of the content of a business plan?
a. format of the business plan
b. style of oral presentation
c. supporting documentation
d. resources

9. The ________ identifies user benefits and the type of market that exists.
a. executive summary
b. products and/or services plan
c. marketing plan
d. management plan

10. The ________ offers information on the sources of financing, projected revenues and costs, as well as profits.
a. operating plan
b. financial plan
c. products and/or services plan
d. appendix

11. Which of the following is a common mistake to avoid when preparing a business plan?
a. Presenting a product or service in simple, general terms.
b. Disclosing and addressing potential problems or weaknesses.
c. Providing too much data in support of statements and projections.
d. Making the overall plan too long.

12. Which of the following is NOT a source of assistance in business plan preparation?
a. marketing specialists
b. local attorneys
c. chambers of commerce
d. accountants

13. A business plan can be viewed as an entrepreneur's game plan.
True    
False    

14. An entrepreneur should postpone consideration of personal goals and aspirations until financing is secured and the business is up and running.
True    
False feedback: Aligning a business opportunity to personal goals and aspirations greatly enhances the likelihood of success.   

15. Anyone starting a business faces the task of raising financial resources.
True    
False    

16. A business plan is a legal document for raising needed investment.
True    
False feedback: The business plan is not a legal document. A prospectus, or offering memorandum, is used to solicit investment.
   
17. Startups entering a turbulent, highly uncertain environment should avoid the temptation to adapt or vary from the original business plan, which displeases investors.
True    
False feedback: In such cases, flexibility may be more important than disciplined adherence to a careful plan.   

18. The basic goal of investors is to minimize the return on their investment.
True    
False feedback: The basic goal of investors is to maximize their returns while minimizing risk.
   
19. To ensure the greatest likelihood of securing investment, a business plan should seldom exceed 40 pages in length.
True feedback: Investors generally read brief reports and avoid lengthy proposals.   
False    

20. The mission statement discusses the firm's background and identifies the form of organization.
True    
False    feedback:  A mission statement is a concise statement of a firm's philosophy.

21. The executive summary may take the form of a synopsis or narrative.
True    
False 

22. The business plan is equally important for use by individuals within the firm as well as for telling the firm's story to outsiders.
True    
False    

Chapter 1 and 2 Study Guide - Network+ Guide to Networks by Tamara Dean

Which network model ensures that no computer on the network has more authority than another?
c. peer-to-peer

Which type of service supports e-mail?
a. communications

_________ services allow remote users to connect to the network.
  1. Access
  2.  
The process of determining the best path from Point A on one network to Point B on another is known as ____.
b. routing

Which certification requires candidates to pass lab exams?
b. CISCO CCIE

Dependability is a characteristic of ____.
c. soft skills

Clients on a client/server network share their resources directly with each other.
False

The simplest form of a network is a client/server network.
False

Network functions are associated with only one layer of the OSI model.
False

Which statement describes an advantage of networks?
b. Networks enable multiple users to share resources.

Which Data Link sublayer manages access to the physical medium?
c. MAC

____ services refer to the capability of a server to share data files, applications, and disk storage space.
b. File

Standards assist in network design.
True

Which IEEE standard describes Ethernet?
802.3

____ provide a Web-based client for checking e-mail.
b. Mail servers

Often, separate LANs are interconnected and rely on several ____ running many different applications and managing resources other than data.
b. servers

A ____ network is confined to a relatively small space.
c. LAN

Security auditing is handled by ____.
b. network management services

Which IEEE standard describes specifications for wireless transmissions?
b. 802.11

A ____ facilitates communication and resource sharing between other computers on the network.
c. server

To prepare to enter the networking field, a student should master a number of general networking technologies.
True

Which network topology is the most common?
a. Star

Very large peer-to-peer networks have emerged to take advantage of the Internet.
True

____ networks are the most popular type of network for medium- and large-scale organizations.
a. Client/server

Each network node has ____ types of addresses.
b. two

____  is a popular career development tool for job seekers and a measure of an employee’s qualifications for employers.
c. Certification

____ is the process of reconstructing segmented data.
b. Reassembly

A common way of sharing resources on a peer-to-peer network is by modifying the ____ controls using the computer’s operating system.
c. file-sharing

Which type of protocol is useful when data must be transferred quickly?
b. Connectionless

Hardware diagnosis and failure alert are handled by ____.
a. network management services

In which OSI model layer does TCP operate?
b. Transport

____ oversees the IAB (Internet Architecture Board).
ISOC

A ____ is a specialized device that allows multiple networks or multiple parts of one network to connect and exchange data.
a. connectivity device

The ____ is a specialized United Nations agency that provides developing countries with technical expertise and equipment to advance those nations’ technological bases.
c. ITU

Standards define the ____ performance of a product or service.
c. minimum acceptable

Hands-on experience to improve networking hardware and software skills is important when attempting to enter the networking field.
True

Modulation can be used to make a signal conform to a specific pathway.
True

In IPv4 addressing, a node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class ____ network
b. B

In IPv4 addressing, an IP address whose first octet is in the range of 192–223 belongs to a Class ____ network.
a. C

In modulation, a simple wave called a(n) ____ wave, is combined with another analog signal to produce a unique signal that gets transmitted from one node to another.
a. carrier

Which term describes the hardware that makes up the enterprise-wide cabling system?
b. Cable plant

The maximum distance a signal can travel and still be interpreted accurately is equal to a segment’s maximum length.
True

A(n) ____ number is the address on a host where an application makes itself available to incoming or outgoing data.
c. port

The strength of an electrical signal is directly proportional to its frequency.
False

In dotted decimal notation, a(n) ____ separates each decimal.
b. period

The data transmission characteristic most frequently discussed and analyzed by networking professionals is ____.
c. throughput

____ is more efficient than TCP for carrying messages that fit within one data packet.
a. UDP

The distance between corresponding points on a wave’s cycle is called its ____.
a. wavelength

____ describes a popular serial data transmission method.
c. EIA/TIA RS-232 (Recommended Standard 232)

Ethernet is an example of a baseband system found on many LANs.
True

In the TCP/IP protocol suite, ____ is the core protocol responsible for logical addressing.
b. IP

The command used to view IP information on a Windows workstation is ipconfig.
True

In most cases, BOOTP has been surpassed by the more sophisticated IP addressing utility, ____.
a. DHCP

When signals are free to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously, the transmission is considered ____.
b. full-duplex

____ is a terminal emulation protocol used to log on to remote hosts using the TCP/IP protocol suite.
c. Telenet

TCP is a(n) ____ subprotocol.
a. connection-oriented

Chapter 7 and 8 Study Guide - Network+ Guide to Networks by Tamara Dean



Question 1

ISDN PRI uses ____ B channels and one 64-Kbps D channel.     
c. 23

Question 2
           
____ is an updated, digital version of X.25 that also relies on packet switching.
d. Frame relay

Question 3
                       
An ad hoc arrangement would work well for a WLAN with many users.    
False

Question 4
           
At the customer’s demarcation point, either inside or outside the building, RJ-48 connectors terminate in a ____.
b. smart jack

Question 5
           
____ may use either the 2.4-GHz or 5-GHz frequency range.       
d.802.11n

Question 6
           
An 802.11g antenna has a geographic range of ____ meters.
b. 100

Question 7
           
On most modern WANs, a ring topology relies on ____ rings to carry data.         
a. redundant

Question 8
           
In the case of connecting two WLANs, access points could be as far as ____ feet apart.
c. 1000

Question 9
                       
To establish a satellite Internet connection, each subscriber must have a ____.    
c. dish antenna

Question 10

In wireless communication, to exchange information, two antennas must be tuned to the same ____.       
c. frequency

Question 11
           
In ____ wireless systems, the transmitting antenna focuses its energy directly toward the receiving antenna which results in a point-to-point link.        
a. fixed

Question 12
                       
After SONET, BPL has the best maximum throughput available.
False
           
The portion of the PSTN that connects any residence or business to the nearest CO is known as the ____.          
d. local loop

Question 13

A ____ aggregates multiple DSL subscriber lines and connects them to the carrier’s CO. 
a. DSLAM

Question 14

If intermittent and difficult-to-diagnose wireless communication errors occur, ____ might be the culprit.    
a. interference

Question 15
           
ATM is a WAN technology that functions in the Data Link layer.  
True

Question 16
           
What sets ATM apart from Ethernet is its ____ size.       
a. fixed packet

Question 17

A ____ converts digital signals into analog signals for use with ISDN phones and other analog devices.  
b. terminal adapter

Question 18
           
The average geographic range for an 802.11a antenna is ____ meters.    
a. 20

Question 19
           
Dial-up ISDN does not convert a computer’s digital signals to analog before transmitting them over the PSTN.    
True

Question 20
           
The data rate of a particular SONET ring is indicated by its ____, a rating that is internationally recognized by networking professionals and standards organizations.       
b. OC (Optical Carrier) level

Question 21
           
WiMAX is defined by the IEEE 802.11 standard.
False

Question 22

Because WAN connections require routers or other Layer 3 devices to connect locations, their links are not capable of carrying ____ protocols.           
c. nonroutable

Question 23
           
The speed of a T-carrier depends on its ____ level.        
a. signal

Question 24
           
Wireless signals experience attenuation.
True

Question 25

Broadband cable requires many subscribers to share the same local line, thus raising concerns about ____ and actual (versus theoretical) throughput. 
a. security

Question 26

In a star topology, a single connection failure will halt all traffic between all sites.
False

Question 27
           
Wireless networks are laid out using the same topologies as wired networks.      
False

Question 28

In ____, a wireless signal splits into secondary waves when it encounters an obstruction.            
a. diffraction

Question 29
           
____ is an 802.11n network feature allowing the combination of multiple frames into one larger frame.     
b. Frame aggregation   

Question 30
                       
A unique characteristic of the 802.11 data frame is its ____ field.
c. Sequence Control

Question 31

____ is a significant problem for wireless communications because the atmosphere is saturated with electromagnetic waves.           
a. Interference
           
Question 32

A directional antenna issues wireless signals along a(n) ____ direction.
d. single

Question 33

In ____ scanning, the station transmits a special frame, known as a probe, on all available channels within its frequency range.           
b. active